3 05 2016

2016 May Cisco Official News – Cisco CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam 400-101 Exam Questions New Updated Today in Braindump2go.com Online IT Study Website!

Exam Introduction: The CCIE written exam is a two-hour qualification exam. The exam uses a combination of 90-110 multiple choice questions and simulations to assess skills.

Skills will be validated: professionals have the expertise to: configure, validate, and troubleshoot complex enterprise network infrastructure; understand how infrastructure components interoperate; and translate functional requirements into specific device configurations.

CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam 400-101 Exam Study Guides:
1. Network Principles;
2. Layer 2 Technologies;
3. Layer 3 Technologies;
4. VPN Technologies;
5. Infrastructure Security;
6. Infrastructure Services;

May New Released Questions:

QUESTION 1
In which order of magnitude (time) is delay/latency measured when you use wide metrics in EIGRP?

A.    tens of microseconds
B.    picoseconds
C.    mamoseconds
D.    microseconds

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which statement about the BGP synchronization rule is true?

A.    A BGP router with synchronization enabled does not advertise its iBGP learned routes to its iBGP peers unless it has learned or verified this route on its routing table through an IGP.
B.    A BGP router with synchronization enabled does not advertise its eBGP learned routes to its iBGP peers unless it has learned or verified this route on its routing table through an IGP.
C.    A BGP router with synchronization enabled does not advertise its eBGP learned routes to its eBGP peers unless it has learned or verified this route on its routing table through an IGP.
D.    A BGP router with synchronization enabled does not advertise its iBGP learned routes to its eBGP peers unless it has learned or verified this route on its routing table through an IGP.

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which tunnel type can be used with encryption to provide security for IPv6 over IPv4?

A.    6RD
B.    6to4
C.    ISATAP
D.    IPv4-compatible
E.    GRE

Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Which QoS mechanism is used to implement CoPP?

A.    RSVP
B.    rate limiting
C.    FIFO
D.    MQC

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which two statements about the spanning-tree timers in a switched network are true? (Choose two)

A.    After receiving a BPDU from the root bridge, a non-root bridge waits for the hello interval before forwarding it out.
B.    The root bridge sends out a TCN every max-age interval.
C.    The root bridge sends out a configuration BPDU every hello interval.
D.    The default hello time is two seconds.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
Which two statements about Cisco IOS XE are true? (Choose two)

A.    Separate images are required for platform-dependent code.
B.    Its functions run as multiple separate processes in the OS.
C.    It uses a service blade outside Cisco IOS XE to integrate and run applications.
D.    It is deployed in a Linux-based environment.
E.    The FED feature provides separation between the control plane and the data plane.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Which two factors can reduce NBAR2 performance? (Choose two)

A.    queuing
B.    multiple NBAR2-enabled interfaces
C.    slow link speeds
D.    stateful protocol matches
E.    short-duration flows

Answer: DE

QUESTION 8
Which encryption algorithm is enabled by the Cisco IOS command service password-encryption ?

A.    MD5
B.    Cisco Type-5
C.    Cisco AES
D.    Cisco Type-7
E.    TKIP

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which two options are requirements for AToM support? (Choose two)

A.    Cisco Express Forwarding must be disabled.
B.    MPLS must be configured with an LSP in the SP core.
C.    MPLS must be enabled between the PE and CE routers.
D.    The PE routers must be able to communicate with each other over IP.
E.    IP routing must be configured between the PE and CE routers.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which two statements best describes the difference between active mode monitoring and passive mode monitoring? (Choose two.)

A.    Active mode monitoring is the act of Cisco PfR gathering information on user packets assembled into flows by NetFlow.
B.    Active mode monitoring uses IP SLA probes for obtaining performance characteristics of the current exit WAN link.
C.    Passive mode monitoring uses IP SLA to generate probes for the purpose of obtaining information regarding the characteristics of the WAN links.
D.    Passive mode monitoring uses NetFlow for obtaining performance characteristics of the exit WAN links.

Answer: BD

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